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Here is a related false proof that shows root 2 is equal to 2:
This false argument was suggested to me by Jeff Stuart as a nice alternative to the more classic Pi = 4 argument.
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35 Replies to “Does Pi Equal 2?? (Spoiler: no)”
I gooned to this
Eventually, you will make a Supertask!
Well the circles will never become perfectly flat to match the line since they are well curved
this is literally the same as the pi = 4 "proof" 😢 tired of seeing it. just bc when you fold something up and it appears smaller doesn't mean it's actually smaller. it's just dense
Pi gets smaller
no
What perplexes me is that, in this example, half the distance of pi is roughly 1.57, (pi/2=1.57), so the total length of pi is nearly 1.5x the length of the diameter.
Idk, Circumferences and hypotenuses always surprise me.
Ha-of
Tiny direction changes will in fact significantly lengthen a segment. Trust the math, not what it looks like.
2 half
Yep. Also the Earth is also flat
swapping limiting factors
Key word: almost!!
Ooh this is the exact same fallacy as the the problem where you can take the distance around a square and repeatedly add more and more 90° turns to make it look like a right triangle, but keep the same perimeter. Basically they never actually fundamentally change what shape they are, therefore they do not adobt the properties of the shape that they look like
If you keep dividing by 2, you will never get 0, it will be very small, but not absolute 0 like a point
I’m an engineer, yes it does
This is the same as all of the numbers 0.1; 0.01; 0.000 … 001 does this mean that it is equal to 0? No
The limit of the sum of the sequen as dx approaches infinity of pi/N is the same as the series 1/N times pi. Making the correct answer 2Pi
radius of semicircles inside semicircle in 1/4 the original not 1/2
1/2 is the diameter not the radius
Infinitely squiggly still
Lets round up pi to 6
Well if we cut 2 into infinte number of x where x is radius of one circle we get x + x + x +…. = 2
So x times infinity is equal to 2 so x is infinitely close to 0. We get pi x + pi x + …. = pi from our first observance so infinity times pi times x = pi so x times infinity equals one which would contradict our previous findings. Even if those two infinites arent the same (bcs yes they arent all the same) then even simple logic is sufficient. Going infinitely close to 0 with radius doesnt mean you will actually get that so at no point you will prove pi equals 2 because that would mean you reached infinity which is impossible in standard numbers
this is kinda stupid , u can solve that without just making curves .
Since when radius equals the angle of curve .
If so , this give pie infinite values .
If u set the radius to be infinity then pie equals infinity and there u know that theres no more maths .
And we are all over again
That would make pi equal to 4, as it is compared to the diameter, not the radius
الفكرة
تخيّل في كل لحظة كون من كوننا يُخلق كونان و من كل كون منهما يخلق كونان و هكذا
use the infinite series formula, a/1-r, gives the first term pi, common ratio of 1/2, pi/0.5 is equal to 2pi.
since the vertical line is dimensionless except in length, the radii can be infinitely small but collectively retain the same length
If you stretch out the bumps, you will add 1.141592653859.
ok. so the real answer is 2.65995691e-18
ᴘɪ ᴍᴇᴀɴs 3.5
You can’t divide by 0
here’s math with ^
2^1=2
2^2=4
2^3=8
2^4=16
2^5=32
2^6=64
2^7=128
2^8=256
2^9=512
2^10=1,024
check in replies for more
Yes! Pi equals two!
But only for very small values of Pi, and very large values of two. 🙂
They never flatten out actually. They just slowly get smaller, than anything we have to measure things. Still 2D space, still 2D figure, just in smaller pieces.
well even the slightest difference between lengths of curve and line becomes big as the number of semicircles in the sequence tends to Infinity as the difference between the two lengths tends to Zero